Answers and Rationale of NCLEX Practice Test for Medical Surgical Nursing 2

View the questions of NCLEX Practice Test for Medical Surgical Nursing 2.

1.       Answer: (A) Hyponatremia
The normal serum sodium level is 135 – 145 mEq/L. The client’s serum sodium is below normal. Hyponatremia also manifests itself with abdominal cramps and nausea and vomiting

2.       Answer: (B) Decreased serum calcium, blood pH 7.2, potassium 6.5 mEq/L
Chronic renal failure is usually the end result of gradual tissue destruction and loss of renal function. With the loss of renal function, the kidneys ability to regulate fluid and electrolyte and acid base balance results. The serum Ca decreases as the kidneys fail to excrete phosphate, potassium and hydrogen ions are retained.

3.       Answer: (B) Avoid taking blood pressure measurements or blood samples from the affected arm.
In the client with an external shunt, don’t use the arm with the vascular access site to take blood pressure readings, draw blood, insert IV lines, or give injections because these procedures may rupture the shunt or occlude blood flow causing damage and obstructions in the shunt.

4.       Answer: (D) He will be pain free.
Surgical interventions involve an experience of pain for the client which can come in varying degrees. Telling the pain that he will be pain free is giving him false reassurance.

5.       Answer: (C) right lower quadrant
To be exact, the appendix is anatomically located at the Mc Burney’s point at the right iliac area of the right lower quadrant.

6.       Answer: (A) telling him to avoid heavy lifting for 4 to 6 weeks
The client should avoid lifting heavy objects and any strenuous activity for 4-6 weeks after surgery to prevent stress on the inguinal area. There is no special diet required. The fluid intake of eight glasses a day is good advice but is not a priority in this case.

7.       Answer: (C) 31%
Using the Rule of Nine in the estimation of total body surface burned, we allot the following: 9% – head; 9% – each upper extremity; 18%- front chest and abdomen; 18% – entire back; 18% – each lower extremity and 1% – perineum.

8.       Answer: (D) Fluid shift from intravascular space to the interstitial space
This period is the burn shock stage or the hypovolemic phase. Tissue injury causes vasodilation that results in increase capillary permeability making fluids shift from the intravascular to the interstitial space. This can lead to a decrease in circulating blood volume or hypovolemia which decreases renal perfusion and urine output.

9.       Answer: (C) Frequently observing for hoarseness, stridor, and dyspnea
Burns located in the upper torso, especially resulting from thermal injury related to fires can lead to inhalation burns. This causes swelling of the respiratory mucosa and blistering which can lead to airway obstruction manifested by hoarseness, noisy and difficult breathing. Maintaining a patent airway is a primary concern.

10.    Answer: (D) Helping the client to rest in the position of maximal comfort
Mobility and placing the burned areas in their functional position can help prevent contracture deformities related to burns. Pain can immobilize a client as he seeks the position where he finds less pain and provides maximal comfort. But this approach can lead to contracture deformities and other complications.

11.    Answer: (D) fluid and electrolyte monitoring
Total parenteral nutrition is a method of providing nutrients to the body by an IV route. The admixture is made up of proteins, carbohydrates, fats, electrolytes, vitamins, trace minerals and sterile water based on individual client needs. It is intended to improve the clients nutritional status. Because of its composition, it is important to monitor the clients fluid intake and output including electrolytes, blood glucose and weight.

12.    Answer: (D) Aluminum hydroxide
Aluminum hydroxide binds dietary phosphorus in the GI tract and helps treat hyperphosphatemia. All the other medications mentioned help treat hyperkalemia and its effects.

13.    Answer: (A) 0.45% NaCl
Hypotonic solutions like 0.45% NaCl has a lower tonicity that the blood; 0.9% NaCl and D5W are isotonic solutions with same tonicity as the blood; and D5NSS is hypertonic with a higher tonicity thab the blood.

14.    Answer: (A) hypertension
In hypovolemia, one of the compenasatory mechanisms is activation of the sympathetic nervous system that increases the RR & PR and helps restore the BP to maintain tissue perfusion but not cause a hypertension. The SNS stimulation constricts renal arterioles that increases release of aldosterone, decreases glomerular filtration and increases sodium & water reabsorption that leads to oliguria.

15.    Answer: (B) assessing Maria’s expectations and doubts
Assessing the client’s expectations and doubts will help lessen her fears and anxieties. The nurse needs to encourage the client to verbalize and to listen and correctly provide explanations when needed.

16.    Answer: (B) recognize that Kathy is experiencing denial, a normal stage of the grieving process
A person grieves to a loss of a significant object. The initial stage in the grieving process is denial, then anger, followed by bargaining, depression and last acceptance. The nurse should show acceptance of the patient’s feelings and encourage verbalization.

17.    Answer: (B) it affects both normal and tumor cells
Chemotherapeutic agents are given to destroy the actively proliferating cancer cells. But these agents cannot differentiate the abnormal actively proliferating cancer cells from those that are actively proliferating normal cells like the cells of the bone marrow, thus the effect of bone marrow depression.

18.    Answer: (C) CTscanning uses magnetic fields and radio frequencies to provide cross-sectional view of tumor
CT scan uses narrow beam x-ray to provide cross-sectional view. MRI uses magnetic fields and radio frequencies to detect tumors.

19.    Answer: (D) frequently elevating the arm of the affected side above the level of the heart.
Elevating the arm above the level of the heart promotes good venous return to the heart and good lymphatic drainage thus preventing swelling.

20.    Answer: (B) “My 7 year old twins should not come to visit me while I’m receiving treatment.”
Children have cells that are normally actively dividing in the process of growth. Radiation acts not only against the abnormally actively dividing cells of cancer but also on the normally dividing cells thus affecting the growth and development of the child and even causing cancer itself.

21.    Answer: (B) Rapid cell catabolism
One of the oncologic emergencies, the tumor lysis syndrome, is caused by the rapid destruction of large number of tumor cells. . Intracellular contents are released, including potassium and purines, into the bloodstream faster than the body can eliminate them. The purines are converted in the liver to uric acid and released into the blood causing hyperuricemia. They can precipitate in the kidneys and block the tubules causing acute renal failure.

22.    Answer: (C) Low residue diet
It is important for the nurse to remember that the implant be kept intact in the cervix during therapy. Mobility and vaginal irrigations are not done. A low residue diet will prevent bowel movement that could lead to dislodgement of the implant. Patient is also strictly isolated to protect other people from the radiation emissions

23.    Answer: (A) Avoid BP measurement and constricting clothing on the affected arm
A BP cuff constricts the blood vessels where it is applied. BP measurements should be done on the unaffected arm to ensure adequate circulation and venous and lymph drainage in the affected arm

24.    Answer: (C) Hypovolemia, wide fluctuations in serum sodium and potassium levels.
The second phase of ARF is the diuretic phase or high output phase. The diuresis can result in an output of up to 10L/day of dilute urine. Loss of fluids and electrolytes occur.

25.    Answer: (A) A rapid pulse and increased RR
The fight or flight reaction of the sympathetic nervous system occurs during stress like in a motor vehicular accident. This is manifested by increased in cardiovascular function and RR to provide the immediate needs of the body for survival.

26.    Answer: (D) assessing her VS especially her RR
Shock is characterized by reduced tissue and organ perfusion and eventual organ dysfunction and failure. Checking on the VS especially the RR, which detects need for oxygenation, is a priority to help detect its progress and provide for prompt management before the occurrence of complications.

27.    Answer: (B) Urine output of 30 to 50 ml/hr.
Hypovolemia is a decreased in circulatory volume. This causes a decrease in tissue perfusion to the different organs of the body. Measuring the hourly urine output is the most quantifiable way of measuring tissue perfusion to the organs. Normal renal perfusion should produce 1ml/kg of BW/min. An output of 30-50 ml/hr is considered adequate and indicates good fluid balance.

28.    Answer: (D) Pericardial tamponade
Pericardial tamponade occurs when there is presence of fluid accumulation in the pericardial space that compresses on the ventricles causing a decrease in ventricular filling and stretching during diastole with a decrease in cardiac output. . This leads to right atrial and venous congestion manifested by a CVP reading above normal.

29.    Answer: (A) administering an irritant that will stimulate vomiting
Swallowing of corrosive substances causes severe irritation and tissue destruction of the mucous membrane of the GI tract. Measures are taken to immediately remove the toxin or reduce its absorption. For corrosive poison ingestion, such as in muriatic acid where burn or perforation of the mucosa may occur, gastric emptying procedure is immediately instituted, This includes gastric lavage and the administration of activated charcoal to absorb the poison. Administering an irritant with the concomitant vomiting to remove the swallowed poison will further cause irritation and damage to the mucosal lining of the digestive tract. Vomiting is only indicated when non-corrosive poison is swallowed.

30.    Answer: (C) Palpable carotid pulse
Presence of a palpable carotid pulse indicates the return of cardiac function which, together with the return of breathing, is the primary goal of CPR. Pulsations in arteries indicates blood flowing in the blood vessels with each cardiac contraction. Signs of effective tissue perfusion will be noted after.

31.    Answer: (C) Flushing of the lids, conjunctiva and cornea with tap or preferably sterile water
Prompt treatment of ocular chemical burns is important to prevent further damage. Immediate tap-water eye irrigation should be started on site even before transporting the patient to the nearest hospital facility. In the hospital, copious irrigation with normal saline, instillation of local anesthetic and antibiotic is done.

32.    Answer: (A) Force air out of the lungs
The Heimlich maneuver is used to assist a person choking on a foreign object. The pressure from the thrusts lifts the diaphragm, forces air out of the lungs and creates an artificial cough that expels the aspirated material.

33.    Answer: (B) speak to both parents together and encourage them to support each other and express their emotions freely
Sudden death of a family member creates a state of shock on the family. They go into a stage of denial and anger in their grieving. Assisting them with information they need to know, answering their questions and listening to them will provide the needed support for them to move on and be of support to one another.

34.    Answer: (C) relax the bronchial smooth muscle
Acute asthmatic attack is characterized by severe bronchospasm which can be relieved by the immediate administration of bronchodilators. Adrenaline or Epinephrine is an adrenergic agent that causes bronchial dilation by relaxing the bronchial smooth muscles.

35.    Answer: (C) lower half of the sternum
The exact and safe location to do cardiac compression is the lower half of the sternum. Doing it at the lower third of the sternum may cause gastric compression which can lead to a possible aspiration.

36.    Answer: (B) “As one ages, visual changes are noted as part of degenerative changes. This is normal.”
Aging causes less elasticity of the lens affecting accommodation leading to blurred vision. The muscles of the iris increase in stiffness and the pupils dilate slowly and less completely so that it takes the older person to adjust when going to and from light and dark environment and needs brighter light for close vision.

37.    Answer: (D) sexual intercourse
To reduce increases in IOP, teach the client and family about activity restrictions. Sexual intercourse can cause a sudden rise in IOP.

38.    Answer: (C) Speak clearly in a loud voice or shout to be heard
Shouting raises the frequency of the sound and often makes understanding the spoken words difficult. It is enough for the nurse to speak clearly and slowly.

39.    Answer: (D) Force fluids before and after the procedure.
LP involves the removal of some amount of spinal fluid. To facilitate CSF production, the client is instructed to increase fluid intake to 3L, unless contraindicated, for 24 to 48 hrs after the procedure.

40.    Answer: (D) Kept the extremity used as puncture site flexed to prevent bleeding.
Angiography involves the threading of a catheter through an artery which can cause trauma to the endothelial lining of the blood vessel. The platelets are attracted to the area causing thrombi formation. This is further enhanced by the slowing of blood flow caused by flexion of the affected extremity. The affected extremity must be kept straight and immobilized during the duration of the bedrest after the procedure. Ice bag can be applied intermittently to the puncture site.

41.    Answer: (D) progression from restlessness to confusion and disorientation to lethargy
The first major effect of increasing ICP is a decrease in cerebral perfusion causing hypoxia that produces a progressive alteration in the LOC. This is initially manifested by restlessness.

42.    Answer: (D) Aspirin is used in the acute management of a completed stroke.
The primary goal in the management of CVA is to improve cerebral tissue perfusion. Aspirin is a platelet deaggregator used in the prevention of recurrent or embolic stroke but is not used in the acute management of a completed stroke as it may lead to bleeding.

43.    Answer: (D) Encourage the client to speak at every possible opportunity.
Expressive or motor aphasia is a result of damage in the Broca’s area of the frontal lobe. It is amotor speech problem in which the client generally understands what is said but is unable to communicate verbally. The patient can best he helped therefore by encouraging him to communicate and reinforce this behavior positively.

44.    Answer: (C) altered cerebral tissue perfusion
The observations made by the nurse clearly indicate a problem of decrease cerebral perfusion. Restoring cerebral perfusion is most important to maintain cerebral functioning and prevent further brain damage.

45.    Answer: (D) Ineffective airway clearance related to muscle weakness
Myasthenia gravis causes a failure in the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction which may be due to a weakening or decrease in acetylcholine receptor sites. This leads to sporadic, progressive weakness or abnormal fatigability of striated muscles that eventually causes loss of function. The respiratory muscles can become weak with decreased tidal volume and vital capacity making breathing and clearing the airway through coughing difficult. The respiratory muscle weakness may be severe enough to require and emergency airway and mechanical ventilation.

46.    Answer: (C) Test for glucose
The CSF contains a large amount of glucose which can be detected by using glucostix. A positive result with the drainage indicate CSF leakage.

47.    Answer: (C) Apply a "shrinker" bandage with tighter arms around the proximal end of the affected limb.
The “shrinker” bandage is applied to prevent swelling of the stump. It should be applied with the distal end with the tighter arms. Applying the tighter arms at the proximal end will impair circulation and cause swelling by reducing venous flow.

48.    Answer: (D) Place items so that it is necessary to bend or stretch to reach them.
Patients with osteoarthritis have decreased mobility caused by joint pain. Over-reaching and stretching to get an object are to be avoided as this can cause more pain and can even lead to falls. The nurse should see to it therefore that objects are within easy reach of the patient.

49.    Answer: (D) Ensure an intake of at least 3000 ml of fluid per day.
Gouty arthritis is a metabolic disease marked by urate deposits that cause painful arthritic joints. The patient should be urged to increase his fluid intake to prevent the development of urinary uric acid stones.

50.    Answer: (B) Before log rolling, remove the pillow from under the client’s head and use no pillows between the client’s legs.
Following a laminectomy and spinal fusion, it is important that the back of the patient be maintained in straight alignment and to support the entire vertebral column to promote complete healing.

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  1. tyrone

    where i can find the questions …

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