Fundamentals of Nursing Questions Part 2 Answers and Rationale

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1. Answer B. Immunizing an infant is an example of primary prevention, which aims to prevent health problems. Administering digoxin to treat heart failure and obtaining a smear for a screening test are examples for secondary prevention, which promotes early detection and treatment of disease. Using occupational therapy to help a patient cope with arthritis is an example of tertiary prevention, which aims to help a patient deal with the residual consequences of a problem or to prevent the problem from recurring.
2. Answer B. Inspection always comes first when performing a physical examination. Percussion and palpation of the abdomen may affect bowel motility and therefore should follow auscultation.
3. Answer D. The S1 sound—the “lub” sound—is loudest at the apex of the heart. It sounds longer, lower, and louder there than the S2 sounds. The S2—the “dub” sound—is loudest at the base. It sounds shorter, sharper, higher, and louder there than S1.
4. Answer B. The nurse identifies human responses to actual or potential health problems during the nursing diagnosis step of the nursing process. During the assessment step, the nurse systematically collects data about the patient or family. During the planning step, the nurse develops strategies to resolve or decrease the patient’s problem. During the evaluation step, the nurse determines the effectiveness of the plan of care.
5. Answer B. Because furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, the nurse should plan to teach the patient to increase intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges. Fresh, green vegetables; lean red meat; and creamed corn are not good sources of potassium.
6. Answer D. The most toxic reaction to chloramphenicol is bone marrow suppression. Chloramphenicol is not known to cause lethal arrhythmias, malignant hypertension, or status epilepticus.
7. Answer D. Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion” takes highest priority because venous inflammation and clot formation impede blood flow in a patient with deep-vein thrombosis. Option A is incorrect because impaired gas exchange is related to decreased, not increased, blood flow. Option B is inappropriate because no evidence suggest that this patient has a fluid volume excess. Option C may be warranted but is secondary to altered tissue perfusion.
8. Answer A. When the central venous catheter is positioned correctly, its tip lies in the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, or the right atrium—that is, in central venous circulation. Blood flows unimpeded around the tip, allowing the rapid infusion of large amounts of fluid directly into circulation. The basilica, jugular, and subclavian veins are common insertion sites for central venous catheters.
9. Answer D. During the evaluation step of the nursing process the nurse determines whether the goals established in the care plan have been achieved, and evaluates the success of the plan. If a goal is unmet or partially met the nurse reexamines the data and revises the plan. Assessment involves data collection. Planning involves setting priorities, establishing goals, and selecting appropriate interventions.
10. Answer C. Wound healing in a client with diabetes will be delayed. Providing the client with a time frame could give the client false information.
11. Answer B. Although documentation isn’t a step in the nursing process, the nurse is legally required to document activities related to drug therapy, including the time of administration, the quantity, and the client’s reaction. Developing a content outline, establishing outcome criteria, and setting realistic client goals are part of planning rather than implementation.
12. Answer B. The client shows signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The pelvic area is rich in blood supply, and thrombophlebitis of the deep vein is associated with pelvic surgery. Aspirin, an antiplatelet agent, and an active walking program help decrease the client’s risk of DVT. In general, diabetes is a contributing factor associated with peripheral vascular disease.
13. Answer D. The nurse should begin with the simplest interventions, such as pillows or snacks, before interventions that require greater skill such as relaxation techniques. Sleep medication should be avoided whenever possible. At some point, the nurse should do a thorough sleep assessment, especially if common sense interventions fail.
14. Answer C. Moist, sterile saline dressings support would heal and are cost-effective. Dry sterile dressings adhere to the wound and debride the tissue when removed. Petroleum supports healing but is expensive. Povidone-iodine can irritate epithelial cells, so it shouldn’t be left on an open wound.
15. Answer C. Upcoding is the practice of using a CPT code that’s reimbursed at a higher rate than the code for the service actually provided. Unbundling, overbilling, and misrepresentation aren’t the terms used for this illegal practice.
16. Answer D. The nurse should refer this client to a sex counselor or other professional. Making appropriate referrals is a valid part of planning the client’s care. The nurse doesn’t normally provide sex counseling. Therefore, providing time for privacy and providing support for the spouse or significant other are important, but not as important as referring the client to a sex counselor.
17. Answer B. According to Maslow, elimination is a first-level or physiological need, and therefore takes priority over all other needs. Security and safety are second-level needs; belonging is a third-level need. Second- and third-level needs can be met only after a client’s first-level needs have been satisfied.
18. Answer B. A client on bed rest suffers from a lack of movement and a negative nitrogen balance. Therefore, inadequate protein intake impairs wound healing. Inadequate vitamin D intake and low calcium levels aren’t factors in poor healing for this client. A pressure ulcer should never be massaged.
19. Answer D. Risk for aspiration related to anesthesia takes priority for thins client because general anesthesia may impair the gag and swallowing reflexes, possibly leading to aspiration. The other options, although important, are secondary.
20. Answer C. Petechiae are small hemorrhagic spots. Extravasation is the leakage of fluid in the interstitial space. Osteomalacia is the softening of bone tissue. Uremia is an excess of urea and other nitrogen products in the blood.
21. Answer B. The Patient’s Bill of Rights addresses the client’s right to information, informed consent, timely responses to requests for services, and treatment refusal. A legal document, it serves as a guideline for the nurse’s decision making. Standards of Nursing Practice, the Nurse Practice Act, and the Code for Nurses contain nursing practice parameters and primarily describe the use of the nursing process in providing care.
22. Answer B. Using an undersized blood pressure cuff produces a falsely elevated blood pressure because the cuff can’t record brachial artery measurements unless it’s excessively inflated. The sciatic nerve wouldn’t be damaged by hyperinflation of the blood pressure cuff because the sciatic nerve is located in the lower extremity.
23. Answer A. Baked beans, hamburger, and milk are all excellent sources of protein. The spaghetti-broccoli-tea choice is high in carbohydrates. The bouillon-spinach-soda choice provides liquid and sodium as well as some iron, vitamins, and carbohydrates. Chicken provides protein but the chicken-spinach-soda combination provides less protein than the baked beans-hamburger-milk selection.
24. Answer A. The first priority is to evaluate airway patency before assessing for signs of obstruction, sternal retraction, stridor, or wheezing. Airway management is always the nurse’s first priority. Pain management and splinting are important for the client’s comfort, but would come after airway assessment. Coughing and deep breathing may be contraindicated if the client has internal bleeding and other injuries.
25. Answer B. The usual or most prevalent reason for lack of productivity in a group of competent nurses is inadequate communication or a situation in which the nurses have unexpected feeling and emotions. Although the other options could be contributing to the problematic situation, they’re less likely to be the cause.
26. Answer B. The client is at risk for infection because WBC count is dangerously low. Hb level and HCT are within normal limits; therefore, fluid balance, rest, and prevention of injury are inappropriate.
27. Answer D. Because of lethargy, the post tonsillectomy client is at risk for aspirating blood from the surgical wound. Therefore, placing the client in the side-lying position until he awake is best. The semi-Fowler’s, supine, and high-Fowler’s position don’t allow for adequate oral drainage in a lethargic post tonsillectomy client, and increase the risk of blood aspiration.
28. Answer A. Unequal pupils are called anisocoria. Ataxia is uncoordinated actions of involuntary muscle use. A cataract is an opacity of the eye’s lens. Diplopia is double vision.
29. Answer A. People of Italian heritage tend to verbalize discomfort and pain. The pain was real to the client, and he may need medication when he wakes up.
30. Answer D. Fluid overload causes the volume of blood within the vascular system to increase. This increase causes the vein to distend, which can be seen most obviously in the neck veins. A neck tumor doesn’t typically cause jugular vein distention. An electrolyte imbalance may result in fluid overload, but it doesn’t directly contribute to jugular vein distention.
    

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