NCLEX Questions for Cardiac Dysrhythmias
NCLEX Questions for Cardiac Dysrhythmias
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Question 1 |
What criteria should the nurse use to determine normal sinus rhythm for a client on a cardiac monitor? Check all that apply.
A | One P wave precedes each QRS complex |
B | The QRS complex ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 second |
C | The ST segment is higher than the PR interval |
D | The RR intervals are relatively consistent |
E | Four to eight complexes occur in a 6 second strip |
Question 1 Explanation:
The RR intervals are relatively consistent | One P wave precedes each QRS complex
The consistency of the RR interval indicates regular rhythm. A normal P wave before each complex indicates the impulse originated in the SA node. The number of complexes in a 6 second strip is multiplied by 10 to approximate the heart rate; normal sinus rhythm is 60 to 100. Elevation of the ST segment is a sign of cardiac ischemia and is unrelated to the rhythm. The QRS duration should be less than 0.12 second; the PR interval should be 0.12 to 0.20 second.
Question 2 |
A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. A nurse would place priority on assessment of which of the following items?
A | Precipitating factors such as infection |
B | Blood pressure and peripheral perfusion |
C | Causative factors such as caffeine |
D | Sensation of palpitations |
Question 2 Explanation:
Blood pressure and peripheral perfusion
Premature ventricular contractions can cause hemodynamic compromise. The shortened ventricular filling time with the ectopic beats leads to decreased stroke volume and, if frequent enough, to decreased cardiac output. The client may be asymptomatic or may feel palpations. PVCs can be caused by cardiac disorders or by any number of physiological stressors, such as infection, illness, surgery, or trauma, and by the intake of caffeine, alcohol, or nicotine.
Question 3 |
While caring for a client who has sustained an MI, the nurse notes eight PVCs in one minute on the cardiac monitor. The client is receiving an IV infusion of D5W and oxygen at 2 L/minute. The nurse’s first course of action should be to:
A | Notify the physician promptly |
B | Increase the IV infusion rate |
C | Increase the oxygen concentration |
D | Administer a prescribed analgesic |
Question 3 Explanation:
Notify the physician promptly
PVCs are often a precursor of life-threatening dysrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. An occasional PVC is not considered dangerous, but if PVCs occur at a rate greater than 5 or 6 per minute in the post MI client, the physician should be notified immediately. More than 6 PVCs per minute is considered serious and usually calls for decreasing ventricular irritability by administering medications such as lidocaine. Increasing the IV infusion rate would not decrease the number of PVCs. Increasing the oxygen concentration should not be the nurse’s first course of action; rather, the nurse should notify the physician promptly. Administering a prescribed analgesic would not decrease ventricular irritability.
Question 4 |
A nurse is viewing the cardiac monitor in a client’s room and notes that the client has just gone into ventricular tachycardia. The client is awake and alert and has good skin color. The nurse would prepare to do which of the following?
A | Administer epinephrine (Adrenaline) intravenously |
B | Immediately defibrillate |
C | Administer amiodarone (Cordarone) intravenously |
D | Prepare for pacemaker insertion |
Question 4 Explanation:
Administer amiodarone (Cordarone) intravenously
First-line treatment of ventricular tachycardia in a client who is hemodynamically stable is the use of anti-dysrhythmics such as amiodarone (Cordarone), lidocaine (Xylocaine), and procainamide (Pronestyl). Cardioversion also may be needed to correct the rhythm (cardioversion is recommended for stable ventricular tachycardia). Defibrillation is used with pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Epinephrine would stimulate and already excitable ventricle and is contraindicated.
Question 5 |
A nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T wave of the preceding beat. The client’s rhythm suddenly changes to one with no P waves or definable QRS complexes. Instead there are coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. The nurse assesses this rhythm to be:
A | Ventricular tachycardia |
B | Asystole |
C | Ventricular fibrillation |
D | Atrial fibrillation |
Question 5 Explanation:
Ventricular fibrillation
Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by irregular, chaotic undulations of varying amplitudes. Ventricular fibrillation has no measurable rate and no visible P waves or QRS complexes and results from electrical chaos in the ventricles.
Question 6 |
A nurse notices frequent artifact on the ECG monitor for a client whose leads are connected by cable to a console at the bedside. The nurse examines the client to determine the cause. Which of the following items is unlikely to be responsible for the artifact?
A | Tightly secured cable connections |
B | Leads applied over hairy areas |
C | Leads applied to the limbs |
D | Frequent movement of the client |
Question 6 Explanation:
Tightly secured cable connections.
Motion artifact, or “noise,” can be caused by frequent client movement, electrode placement on limbs, and insufficient adhesion to the skin, such as placing electrodes over hairy areas of the skin. Electrode placement over bony prominence's also should be avoided. Signal interference can also occur with electrode removal and cable disconnection.
Question 7 |
A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor, and a client’s rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves; instead there are wavy lines. The QRS complexes measure 0.08 second, but they are irregular, with a rate of 120 beats a minute. The nurse interprets this rhythm as:
A | Sinus tachycardia |
B | Ventricular fibrillation |
C | Atrial fibrillation |
D | Ventricular tachycardia |
Question 7 Explanation:
Atrial fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation is characterized by a loss of P waves; an undulating, wavy baseline; QRS duration that is often within normal limits; and an irregular ventricular rate, which can range from 60 to 100 beats per minute (when controlled with medications) to 100 to 160 beats per minute (when uncontrolled).
Question 8 |
A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but over 100. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing:
A | Ventricular fibrillation |
B | Sinus tachycardia |
C | Ventricular tachycardia |
D | Premature ventricular contractions |
Question 8 Explanation:
Ventricular tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia is characterized by the absence of P waves, wide QRS complexes (usually greater than 0.14 second), and a rate between 100 and 250 impulses per minute. The rhythm is usually regular.
Question 9 |
A nurse is caring for a client with unstable ventricular tachycardia. The nurse instructs the client to do which of the following, if prescribed, during an episode of ventricular tachycardia?
A | Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds. |
B | Breathe deeply, regularly, and easily. |
C | Lie down flat in bed |
D | Remove any metal jewelry |
Question 9 Explanation:
Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds.
Cough cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) sometimes is used in the client with unstable ventricular tachycardia. The nurse tells the client to use cough CPR, if prescribed, by inhaling deeply and coughing forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds. Cough CPR may terminate the dysrhythmia or sustain the cerebral and coronary circulation for a short time until other measures can be implemented.
Question 10 |
When ventricular fibrillation occurs in a CCU, the first person reaching the client should:
A | Administer oxygen |
B | Administer sodium bicarbonate intravenously |
C | Defibrillate the client |
D | Initiate CPR |
Question 10 Explanation:
Defibrillate the client
Ventricular fibrillation is a death-producing dysrhythmia and, once identified, must be terminated immediately by precordial shock (defibrillation). This is usually a standing physician’s order in a CCU.
Question 11 |
A client with a bundle branch block is on a cardiac monitor. The nurse should expect to observe:
A | Sagging ST segments |
B | Widening of QRS complexes to 0.12 second or greater. |
C | Absence of P wave configurations |
D | Inverted T waves following each QRS complex |
Question 11 Explanation:
Widening of QRS complexes to 0.12 second or greater.
Bundle branch block interferes with the conduction of impulses from the AV node to the ventricle supplied by the affected bundle. Conduction through the ventricles is delayed, as evidenced by a widened QRS complex.
Question 12 |
A client with rapid rate atrial fibrillation asks a nurse why the physician is going to perform carotid massage. The nurse responds that this procedure may stimulate the:
A | Diaphragmic nerve to slow the heart rate |
B | Vagus nerve to increase the heart rate; overdriving the rhythm. |
C | Vagus nerve to slow the heart rate |
D | Diaphragmic nerve to overdrive the rhythm |
Question 12 Explanation:
Vagus nerve to slow the heart rate
Carotid sinus massage is one of the maneuvers used for vagal stimulation to decrease a rapid heart rate and possibly terminate a tachydysrhythmia. The others include inducing the gag reflex and asking the client to strain or bear down. Medication therapy often is needed as an adjunct to keep the rate down or maintain the normal rhythm.
Question 13 |
A client has developed atrial fibrillation, which a ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. A nurse assesses the client for:
A | Hypotension and dizziness |
B | Hypertension and headache |
C | Nausea and vomiting |
D | Flat neck veins |
Question 13 Explanation:
Hypotension and dizziness
The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate more than 150 beats a minute is at risk for low cardiac output because of loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins.
Question 14 |
The adaptations of a client with complete heart block would most likely include:
A | Flushing and slurred speech |
B | Cephalalgia and blurred vision |
C | Syncope and low ventricular rate |
D | Nausea and vertigo |
Question 14 Explanation:
Syncope and low ventricular rate
In complete atrioventricular block, the ventricles take over the pacemaker function in the heart but at a much slower rate than that of the SA node. As a result there is decreased cerebral circulation, causing syncope.
Question 15 |
A nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 second, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 second. The overall heart rate is 64 beats per minute. The nurse assesses the cardiac rhythm as:
A | Sick sinus syndrome |
B | First-degree heart block. |
C | Sinus bradycardia |
D | Normal sinus rhythm |
Question 15 Explanation:
Normal sinus rhythm.
Measurements are normal, measuring 0.12 to 0.20 second and 0.4 to 0.10 second, respectively.’
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